Welcome to your Neetcomplete set- 1
1.
Eye defect: diagram showing converging rays before retina
2.
The acceleration of an object in free fall is:
3.
Unit of electric charge is:
4.
Kinetic energy of 2 kg mass moving at 3 m/s?
5.
Ohm’s law is valid for all materials:
7.
Speed of light in vacuum is approximately:
8.
The physical quantity measured in Tesla is:
9.
Work done in moving a charge q across potential difference V is:
10.
The formula for frequency f in terms of time period T is:
11.
The device used to measure current is:
12.
A body moving in circular path has acceleration:
14.
In Young’s double slit experiment, the type of diffraction is:
15.
Minimum potential to stop photoelectric current when Φ = 3.1 eV and λ = 2000 Å:
16.
λ = 2000 Å < threshold λ₀ = 3000 Å. Electrons will:
17.
In Bohr model, which quantity ∝ n²?
18.
Weight of nuclear matter in matchbox (5×4×1 cm³):
19.
Potential U = ax² – bx ⇒ equilibrium position is:
20.
Potential U = ax² – bx ⇒ equilibrium position is:
21.
Moment of inertia of equilateral triangle rods of mass M, length l about one vertex:
22.
Projectile velocity v = kVₑ (k
23.
Temp for max density of water in °F?
24.
Given wave speed = 320 m/s, λ = 8 cm. Frequency = ?
25.
If L₁ and L₂ are successive resonance lengths in tube, wavelength is:
26.
2 charges q at rod ends rotated about center ⇒ μ/L ratio is:
27.
Two bar magnets at r apart give F = 8 N. At 2r, force is:
28.
Double the turns of coil with same length. Inductance becomes:
29.
Current after closing key K in RC circuit with R = 6Ω, C = 4μF:
30.
Concave lens (n=1.5), R₁ = –3 cm, R₂ = –4 cm, u = –12 cm. Find v:
31.
A rocket accelerates at 10 m/s^2 for 60s, fuel ends, total max height?
32.
Stress in a wire at 3L/4 from lower end with W1 hanging:
33.
At what temperature should a gold ring be heated to fit over bangle?
34.
A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is ν in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct? (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively).
35.
"A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the following truth table: A B Y 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 The expression for the output Y is:"
36.
In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is:
37.
At any instant of time ttt, the displacement of any particle is given by x=2t−1x = 2t - 1x=2t−1 (in SI units) under the influence of a force of 5 N. What is the value of instantaneous power?
38.
"Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The potential (V) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector P of magnitude, 4 × 10–6 C m, is ± 9 × 103 V. (Take 1 = 9 × 109 SI units) 4II0 Reason R: V II 2P , where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the 4II0 r 2 dipole. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true. "
39.
Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one-dimensional collision. Body A moves with velocity v1v_1v1 while body B is at rest before the collision. The velocity of the system after collision is v2v_2v2. The ratio v1:v2v_1 : v_2v1:v2 is
40.
In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds. The moment of inertia of the needle is 9.8×10⁻⁶ kg·m². If the magnetic moment of the needle is x×10⁻⁵ A·m², find the value of x.
41.
An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then
42.
Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer: A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lie in the IV quadrant of the given graph. B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (µA) is due to majority charge carriers.
43.
The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, when connected through an external resistance of 4 Ω is:
44.
The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:
45.
In the Below diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:
46.
"Match List I with List II List-I List-II A. Rhizopus I. Mushroom B. Ustilago II. Smut fungus C. Puccinia III. Bread mould D. Agaricus IV. Rust fungus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:"
47.
Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates
48.
Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of
49.
List I (Terms) A Two or more alternative forms of a gene B Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent C Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parents D Number of chromosome sets in plant List II (Definitions) I Back cross II Ploidy III Allele IV Test cross
50.
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and down stream end;
51.
Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin
52.
"These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss: A. Over exploitation B. Co-extinction C. Mutation D. Habitat loss and fragmentation E. Migration Choose the correct option:"
53.
"Match List I with List II List I List II A. Clostridium butylicum I. Ethanol B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae II. Streptokinase C. Trichoderma polysporum III. Butyric acid D. Streptococcus sp. IV. Cyclosporin-A Choose the correct answer from the options given below:"
54.
Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during
55.
Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?
56.
" Match List I with List II List-I List-II A. Nucleolus I. Site of formation of glycolipid B. Centriole II. Organization like the cartwheel C. Leucoplasts III. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis D. Golgi apparatus IV. For storing nutrients Choose the correct answer from the options given below:"
57.
The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:
58.
The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called
59.
Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
60.
" Identify the set of correct statements: A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar. B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated by water. C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting. D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below."
61.
"116. Given below are two statements: Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue. Statement II : Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:"
62.
Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for
63.
"Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements: In the members of Phaeophyceae, A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores. B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only. C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin. D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll. E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:"
64.
" Match List I with List II List I List II (Types of Stamens) (Example) A. Monoadelphous I. Citrus B. Diadelphous II. Pea C. Polyadelphous III. Lily D. Epiphyllous IV. China-rose Choose the correct answer from the options given below:"
65.
"What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism? A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism. B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient. C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA. D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome. E. It shows ability to replicate. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:"
66.
Cambium is most active in:
67.
Which characters of secondary growth are incorrect?
68.
Water-containing cavities are present within vascular bundles of:
69.
Select the correct pair:
70.
Closed vascular bundles lack:
71.
Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of food because they possess:
72.
Pith is not well developed in:
73.
In Barley stem, vascular bundles are:
74.
Conjoint and closed vascular bundles are found in:
75.
In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is completely ________ in origin.
76.
Stomata in grass leaf are:
77.
Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
78.
Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
79.
"Given below are two statements: Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. "
80.
"Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer:"
81.
Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
82.
Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium
83.
Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:
84.
Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
85.
Given below are two statements:Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures.Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
86.
Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for oogenesis? (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary (e) It is initiated at puberty Choose the most appropriate answer:
87.
A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆, then what is the formula for maltose?
88.
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:
89.
Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A:
90.
Tegmina in cockroach, arises from:
91.
Detritivores break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:
92.
If 8 Drosophila in a laboratory population of 80 died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.
93.
Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
94.
Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
95.
The organisms attached to the substratum generally possess:
96.
Observe the following diagram and select the correct option.
97.
Match the name of the animal (Column I) with one characteristic (Column II) and the phylum/class (Column III) to which it belongs
98.
Fats are stored in which of the following tissue?
99.
The sperms are stored in the seminal vesicles and are glued together in the form of bundles called:
100.
A person breathing normally at rest, takes in and expels approximately half a litre of air during each respiratory cycle. This is called:
101.
Deoxyhaemoglobin binds with more H⁺ than oxyhaemoglobin does. It is described by:
102.
Oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to right on decrease of:
103.
CO₂ dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when:
104.
The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes place by:
105.
Which of the following is not a part of the oviduct?
106.
"Identify the correct statement on inhibin: a)It is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH b) It inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH, and prolactin. C) b. It inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH, and prolactin. D) It is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
107.
"Read the following statements about the given diagram and select the option with correct sentences. i. G carries urine and sperms. ii. Secretions of A, B, and C form seminal fluid. 2 / 8 iii. F produces testosterone but not sperms. iv. E stores sperms. v. D carries sperms from testis to urethra"
108.
The process done in the given figure
109.
Administration of progesterone, progesterone-estrogen combination or IUDs are effective within ________ hrs of coitus.
110.
"Identify what is indicated in the given diagram? i.Natural selection ii. Adaptive radiation iii. Ecological succession iv. Different species of finches by mutatio"
111.
"Identify what is indicated in the given diagram? i.Natural selection ii. Adaptive radiation iii. Ecological succession iv. Different species of finches by mutatio"
112.
JGA (juxta glomerular apparatus), a sensitive region which regulates the glomerular filtration rate, is present near the:
113.
Ornithine cycle is related to:
114.
Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus together constitute:
115.
The protein whose removal enables myosin to bind actin in smooth muscle is:
116.
EDTA injected into muscles combines with Ca²⁺ and:
117.
Repolarisation of neuron is occurred due to:
118.
Centripetal and centrifugal xylem are the important feature of:
119.
Many grass leaves are capable to folding and unfolding due to:
120.
Which of the following is a part of the epidermal tissue system?
121.
i. Palisade tissue is present towards upper epidermis in monocot leaves. ii. Lower mesophyll in dicot has few chloroplasts. iii. Vascular bundles are closed in dicot leaves.
122.
Identify given diagram and choose the correct answer for labelled part of given diagram
123.
The histogen concept was proposed by:
124.
In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have:
125.
Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Most appropriate reason:
126.
Mesophyll differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma in ________:
127.
In which of the following, vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of thick-walled bundle sheath cells?
128.
One of the following is absent in monocots:
129.
Which of the following processes helps trichomes in preventing water loss?
130.
Proteolytic enzyme-secreting glands are present in which plant?
131.
In monocot leaf which type of guard cell is present?
132.
Parenchymatous cells between xylem and phloem are called:
133.
Which of the following characteristics is correct about a monocot leaf?
134.
How many characters for monocot stem are correct?
135.
Multiple epidermis on both sides of the leaf is found in:
136.
Structure to distinguish old dicot stem from root:
137.
Anatomically old dicot root vs dicot stem is distinguished by:
138.
Which phylum includes animals with a notochord at some stage?
139.
The exoskeleton of arthropods is mainly made up of:
140.
Which is the largest gland in humans?
141.
Insects breathe through:
142.
The nervous system of earthworm is:
143.
Which of the following is hermaphrodite?
144.
The heart of an amphibian has how many chambers?
145.
In vertebrates, the backbone is formed by:
146.
The blood corpuscles without nucleus are:
147.
The main nitrogenous excretory product in mammals is:
148.
The largest gland in the digestive system of fishes is:
149.
Which one of these animals exhibits incomplete metamorphosis?
150.
The type of skeleton found in echinoderms is:
151.
Which part of the brain regulates involuntary actions?
152.
The main organ of excretion in amphibians is:
153.
The digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins is:
154.
Which one of the following is not a mammal?
155.
The hormone that controls blood sugar levels is:
156.
The blood pressure is highest in which type of blood vessel?
157.
In which animal does external fertilization occur?
158.
The functional unit of kidney is called:
159.
The heart of fish has how many chambers?
160.
Which vitamin is produced by bacteria in the large intestine?
161.
The main nitrogenous waste excreted by birds is:
162.
The blood in which type of vessel flows slowest?
163.
Which of these animals exhibits radial symmetry?
164.
The hormone that controls blood sugar levels is:
165.
The site of digestion in insects is:
166.
The bony structure protecting the brain is:
167.
The smallest blood vessels where exchange of gases occurs are:
168.
Which of the following is an oviparous animal?
169.
The term "metamorphosis" refers to:
170.
The animal with segmented body and jointed appendages belongs to:
171.
Which part of the neuron receives impulses?
172.
The sensory organ for balance in humans is:
173.
The main function of platelets in blood is:
174.
The organ responsible for sound production in frogs is:
175.
The process of shedding old exoskeleton in arthropods is called:
176.
The organ responsible for sound production in frogs is:
177.
The pigment responsible for red color of blood is:
178.
The site of digestion in insects is:
179.
Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
180.
The nervous system of echinoderms is: